Originally Posted by deValtos
Why discount dopers ? If we just look at clean cyclists in the modern era we're going to have an incredibly small sample size, which is not something you should draw conclusions from.
I don't know why you said my statistics are not sound. I didn't give any
Do you genuinely believe this transition by Wiggins is unexplainable
as you put it earlier and statistically almost impossible
? Or are you exaggerating to make a point and just think its unlikely ?
It doesn't matter. We can include dopers. And we can include the pre-EPO era. Which means if Wiggins IS clean even more remarkable.
Not only does he beat the EPO era trajectory of track to GT riders but also the era from 1960 to 1992! (just prior to EPO).
That's some statistical phenomena going on right there.
My guess is he used dope and move from 4000m on the trace to Grand Tour Tour Winner.
Hard to explain it any other way when it a hasn't happened for 50 years prior. (I'm talking Tour de France here).