A Berkeleyan question for Clinicians: if a substance isn't yet banned, is it a positive test?
On Dopeology.org, a visitor expressed dissatisfaction with the listing for Pedro Delgado:
The visitor is not wrong about the facts of the incident. So it's an interesting situation. Yet, when looking at both contemporary and current press articles that discuss the story, it's still always referred to as a positive test.
Thoughts?
On Dopeology.org, a visitor expressed dissatisfaction with the listing for Pedro Delgado:
Dopeology visitor said:Delgado did not test positive. Probenecid was not on the UCI list of banned substances [It was on the IOC list but the Tour's Rule 35 stated that UCI rules applied - L'arriviste] and therefore Delgado did not register a positive for any banned substances. It was a mistake to report it at that time and it's a mistake to do so now. In fairness to Delgado, I believe his name should be removed from this website.
The visitor is not wrong about the facts of the incident. So it's an interesting situation. Yet, when looking at both contemporary and current press articles that discuss the story, it's still always referred to as a positive test.
Thoughts?