I can't understand the logic in this thread. Gaps are measured in time, but not such as in time equal distance over speed. Actually, if that was the case it would be because distance is being equally measured in real time, which isn't possible very accurately. As others have stated, they simply measure the time between 2 motorbikes. That's is the reason a lot of times the gaps aren't correctly shown: one motorbike is moving from one peloton to another one.
Consider this: we do see time gaps in formula 1 too and they don't change dramatically. If this was done using speeds and distances, we would see the time gaps would increase drastically as soon as the chasing driver is entering a curve because of his reduced speed and so on.
The most accurate possible time measure system would require a real time speed predictor (as in it needs to predict future peloton speeds, not just estimate current ones) algorithm so it would almost perfectly estimate the time required for the chasing peloton to get to the current lead peloton position. Obviously, such an algorithm is very very difficult to create, even in simple conditions. Besides, current method is good enough.
Consider this: we do see time gaps in formula 1 too and they don't change dramatically. If this was done using speeds and distances, we would see the time gaps would increase drastically as soon as the chasing driver is entering a curve because of his reduced speed and so on.
The most accurate possible time measure system would require a real time speed predictor (as in it needs to predict future peloton speeds, not just estimate current ones) algorithm so it would almost perfectly estimate the time required for the chasing peloton to get to the current lead peloton position. Obviously, such an algorithm is very very difficult to create, even in simple conditions. Besides, current method is good enough.