Assuming you are right that his license was issued by USA Cycling (and wasn't it USCF back when Armstrong was racing, not USA Cycling, which is actually a different organization?), how can he have agreed to comply with USADA disciplinary and adjudicatory procedures when USADA didn't even exist for many of the years for which they are now going after him? I'm just asking, because if I am getting the gist of Armstrong's argument about compelling arbitration, it's not a matter of whether someone agrees to abide by, for example UCI's procedures, but whether there is actually an enforceable agreement that requires him to comply with USADA's adjudicatory process.
Here's a hypothetical: You are a widget manufactuer. You agree to supply me with widgets for a period of the next 10 years at a price and in quantities that we specify in our contract. Our contract expressly says that all widgets manufactured and sold by you are to be inspected by Company A for quality control purposes and that we both agree that Company A shall have the final decision on whether the widgets you sell me are or are not in compliance with the specifications called for under our contract.
We also insert a clause in our contract that requires you and me, as between us to arbitrate any disputes we may have that arise during the term of our contract. You and I sign the contract. Company A, however, is not a party to our contract and does not sign it.
Given these facts, is Company A required to arbitrate any disputes that may arise between it and either of us? Absent a separate agreement between you and me, on the one hand, and Company A, on the other hand, can Company A compel us to arbitrate any disputes that may arise between me and Company A, or you and Company A?
That's essentially the argument that I believe Armstrong has raised in his Motion for TRO, i.e., that he may have agreed to arbitrate and abide by UCI's procedures in applying for a UCI license, but he never signed anything that gave USADA power to adjudicate or press claims against him based on non-analytical claims.
Maybe you're right, and USADA's power is implicit based on some of the other documents that an athlete is required to give assent to in order to gain a licence, but that's really far different than saing one has actually agreed to such procedures in advance. Appreciate your thoughts on this, but I'm sure that someone in the 400+ pages which precede this may have already addressed the issue, and if so, I apologize in advance. I'm just trying to understand the framework which makes up the UCI, USA Cycling/USADA framework as it pertains to the claims prosecution and procedure, which seems anything but clear.