acoggan said:
I'm trying to picture how that would work...that is, since the paper was a case study how could Coyle have raised this issue, even in an abstract sense, without appearing to be accusing Armstrong? Even if Armstrong weren't known for being vindictive and/or litigious, that likely wouldn't have gotten past the reviewers because it would have been considered too speculative.
Oh, come on. The data may have been obtained in the 1990s, but the paper was published in 2005. Nobody forced Coyle to publish at that time. Wouldn’t the prudent course of action, given all the rumors (not to mention the EPO positives), be just not to publish?
Aside from the question of why Coyle ever published this study, though, the question of whether efficiency can be increased by training is an interesting one. Andy Coggan, I think you have hurt your cause a little here by not explaining more carefully what efficiency means. On the one hand, by mechanical efficiency, Coyle is referring to the ability of muscle fibers to convert a given amount of chemical, metabolic energy to actual physical force. I take it that type I fibers are more efficient than type II fibers—certainly at a certain optimal cadence range for cyclists—and that this is the basis for his speculation that efficiency could be improved by a conversion of type II to type I fibers.
OTOH, though, efficiency is actually measured, as I understand it, by determining the ratio of power output to oxygen intake. Therefore, it seems to me that anything that increases the utilization of a given level of oxygen intake would increase efficiency, even if there were no actual increase in mechanical efficiency. For example, it has been known for several decades that training increases the activity of several aerobic enzymes, such as citrate synthase and carnitine-palmitoyl transferase. Unless the amount of oxygen is the rate-limiting factor, this would result in an increase in power output relative to oxygen intake. Even if oxygen is rate-limiting, given that there is an equilibrium between oxygen in the blood and oxygen taken up by tissues, one would expect that anything that increased the capacity of tissues to use oxygen would result in some increase is uptake.
So my question is, why have you and Coyle not considered such an explanation, given that the basis for it is well-established? Or for that matter, other well-established effects of training, such as an increase in vascularization of the tissues? Can simple respiratory measurements rule out an increase in efficiency by these processes, and if so, how? Is CO2 also measured, so that the actual amount of oxygen utilized, as opposed to that taken in, can be estimated?