Here is where he starts indicating he does not actually believe the samples were spiked:
RTMcFadden
Quote:
Originally Posted by BroDeal View Post
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In order to spike a sample, you would have to know which sample to spike. Since the lab had no knowledge of which samples were Armstrong's, the "spiking issue" is a non-issue. Ashenden, in his interview, should have stressed that the samples were anonymous rather than trying to come up with a very weak (and wrong) argument as to why they could not be spiked.
You make a valid point. Although, blinds can be broken, it's not really that easy.
Commenting on your post:
RTMcFadden
Quote:
Originally Posted by Thoughtforfood View Post
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I didn’t level the charge that there was a conspiracy, Armstrong did that himself. I’ve been trying to avoid casting dispersions regarding anyone’s motives. Because, fundamentally, I don’t really care if Armstrong doped or not.
More specifically RTMcFadden wrote:
Do you have evidence, no matter how slight, for any of them?
I have no evidence for or against. I was asked a question that I am not capable of knowing the answer to. So, my answer was absolutely speculative. I specifically addressed the issue of analyst involvement because ThoughtforFood asked about it.
I am pretty sure, and you can check me on this, but if they just needed urine to spike, they could have gotten those samples from anywhere including their own urine which they would have known DIDN'T contain synthetic EPO..
Do you believe any of them to be true, likely, or even remotely plausible? Yes, 1, 2 , & 3 are reasonable rationale.
Do you think any of this happened?
Since they were conducting research on the test method, it is not unreasonable to think that they incorporated validation methodologies.
Why? I remember reading some where that WADA claimed that the test methods they used were validated.
Do you think the analysis of the samples strongly suggests:
1) EPO use – using civil law standards (preponderance of the evidence) - yes. Using criminal law standards (beyond a reasonable doubt) – insufficient data.
2) Tampering – Possible, not probable.
RTMcFadden responding to one of my posts:
Therein lies the rub. It equally as hard to prove that it did happen, as that it didn't. See, this could be done with out generating any type of paper trail. I could, with malice and forethought, do this without anyone being able to discover it. If I had people colluding with me, it wouldn’t even take forethought.
On the other hand, if I were conducting research, specifically performing a recovery study, I could do this with everyone’s full knowledge and without malice. Once the results are generated, they’re generated. If someone inadvertently misinterpreted these “research result” for actual same results, they could be passed along without malice. Yes, I know this scenario is a stretch, but I use it to demonstrate that it could happen without a massive conspiracy. The easiest way to disprove this scenario, would be to ask the right person, which isn’t me. Absent a response to the affirmative, I don’t believe this could have been done without malicious intent. And I don’t know the scientists so I can’t vouch for their character. Nevertheless, I choose to believe people, especially scientists, to be honorable.
These are the statements I was referring to when I stated RTMcFadden had stated he did not think the samples were spiked but that it could be scientifically possible.