Re: Re:
No there was another "defenceless receiver" hit earlier in the game that was flagged that to me looked like the player had as much time to compose themselves before the hit and it drew a penalty, that's why I couldn't understand the Shazier hit not getting a penalty.
found a video: http://www.nfl.com/videos/nfl-game-highlights/0ap3000000620128/Ben-Roethlisberger-finds-Markus-Wheaton-for-24-yard-gain
But let's say for instance that the shazier hit drew a penalty, would that overturn the fumble?
infeXio said:leftover pie said:infeXio said:The rule is different when player with the ball has established himself as a runner, which Bernard was deemed to have on that play, and thus wasn't, according to the rule, a defenseless receiver..
That I understand, but each player caught the ball and then took 2 steps, if that, how has one established themselves as a runner while the other hasn't?
You mean Burfict's hit on Antonio Brown that was flagged, right? - or have I misunderstood something?
If it's the hit on Brown; he didn't catch the ball
No there was another "defenceless receiver" hit earlier in the game that was flagged that to me looked like the player had as much time to compose themselves before the hit and it drew a penalty, that's why I couldn't understand the Shazier hit not getting a penalty.
found a video: http://www.nfl.com/videos/nfl-game-highlights/0ap3000000620128/Ben-Roethlisberger-finds-Markus-Wheaton-for-24-yard-gain
But let's say for instance that the shazier hit drew a penalty, would that overturn the fumble?