- May 14, 2010
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Re: Re:
He was competing at the Tour in Europe under UCI rules in 1986. The UCI had not proscribed blood doping at the time, so, no, if he was doing it, or having it done, it wasn't cheating.
In my opinion it isn't possible to win the Tour de France paniagua, especially when your competitors are doped. But that doesn't mean you have to cheat. There's a whole raft of things you can take and do - especially back then - that are permitted by the rules, including testosterone up to a certain amount. Blood manipulation was permissible in LeMond's day, too.
The cheating question is important because it's about sporting ethics. Beating your opponents within scope of the rules is what sport is all about. It's admirable. Cheating your opponent, on the other hand, is the opposite of admirable. That's why it matters.
I can't demonstrate, through logic, that he cheated. I can demonstrate, I think, that he would have done everything allowed by the rules to win, and that he did.
I would say that if he'd used it successfully two years running, he'd have felt pretty comfortable with it. Plus, he had medical supervision. Thickening of the blood due to EPO use isn't cumulative; it only occurs with use, and is dosage-dependent. So if he didn't use it after May of 91, in my opinion, it wasn't because he thought it might kill him, but for some other reason.
sniper said:@maxiton:
very fair points.
Indeed, we seem to have a slightly different perspective on the matter.
I'm personally less interested in the "did he cheat yes/no?" question, but more interested in the "did he manipulate his blood?" question.
Cheater or not, that's largely going to be a matter of taste. It's a difficult proposition. For instance:
I read somewhere else that blood transfusions were made illegal in the US already in 1985. So if he transfused in 86, was he cheat in your book?
He was competing at the Tour in Europe under UCI rules in 1986. The UCI had not proscribed blood doping at the time, so, no, if he was doing it, or having it done, it wasn't cheating.
For me, the larger, more interesting question is: "what is possible on a bike on bread and water?"
Therefore, more useful than the "cheater yes/no" question, is, imo, to know whether he won those TdFs with or without blood manipulation.
In my opinion it isn't possible to win the Tour de France paniagua, especially when your competitors are doped. But that doesn't mean you have to cheat. There's a whole raft of things you can take and do - especially back then - that are permitted by the rules, including testosterone up to a certain amount. Blood manipulation was permissible in LeMond's day, too.
The cheating question is important because it's about sporting ethics. Beating your opponents within scope of the rules is what sport is all about. It's admirable. Cheating your opponent, on the other hand, is the opposite of admirable. That's why it matters.
I can't demonstrate, through logic, that he cheated. I can demonstrate, I think, that he would have done everything allowed by the rules to win, and that he did.
Anyway, my point in reply to your post was this:
if he stopped using EPO in 1991, I personally don't think that that decision was driven by "fair-play" morals, as you seem to suggest, but rather driven by "I don't wanna drop dead" morals.
I would say that if he'd used it successfully two years running, he'd have felt pretty comfortable with it. Plus, he had medical supervision. Thickening of the blood due to EPO use isn't cumulative; it only occurs with use, and is dosage-dependent. So if he didn't use it after May of 91, in my opinion, it wasn't because he thought it might kill him, but for some other reason.
