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quite...In the first place, these riders showed far more promise before podiuming in a GT. They did not burst upon the scene with that result.
Second, your tacit assumption is that development is totally dependent on the number of years a rider has as pro, while completely ignoring age. How old were these riders when they podiumed for the first time?
Hinault - 23
Lemond - 23
Dumoulin - 26 (but strongly contended at the Vuelta two years earlier)
Contador - 24
Froome - 27
Hinault, Lemond and Contador required several years to podium not because, or just because, of lack of experience, but because they had to develop physically. If they had turned pro at 18, they would have needed even more years. IOW, Froome had a head start in physical maturation, which you are ignoring.
Also worth noting that promising riders were kept out of GT's to mature back then. If Hinault and Lemond were riding today, their GT debuts would have come a couple of years earlier.In the first place, these riders showed far more promise before podiuming in a GT. They did not burst upon the scene with that result.
Second, your tacit assumption is that development is totally dependent on the number of years a rider has as pro, while completely ignoring age. How old were these riders when they podiumed for the first time?
Hinault - 23
Lemond - 23
Dumoulin - 26 (but strongly contended at the Vuelta two years earlier)
Contador - 24
Froome - 27
Hinault, Lemond and Contador required several years to podium not because, or just because, of lack of experience, but because they had to develop physically. If they had turned pro at 18, they would have needed even more years. IOW, Froome had a head start in physical maturation, which you are ignoring.
Yes.Not totally sure I follow this discussion. Is the discussion about why one group of near certain dopers (Hinault, Contador, etc.) had a more consistent ramp than another near certain doper, Froome? Are we trying to track down the mystery of why exactly Froome made an unprecedented leap at 27? Is the argument that, unlike Hinault, Contador, etc., who were doping the entire time they were in the pro peloton, and likely before, Froome showed much restraint and only started doping late in the game when it was clear his dream was almost over?
The argument is that talent shows early. If your talent shows early, you might dope, but maybe you do have talent nonetheless. If your talent doesn't show early, you don't have it.Not totally sure I follow this discussion. Is the discussion about why one group of near certain dopers (Hinault, Contador, etc.) had a more consistent ramp than another near certain doper, Froome?
Is the argument that, unlike Hinault, Contador, etc., who were doping the entire time they were in the pro peloton, and likely before, Froome showed much restraint and only started doping late in the game when it was clear his dream was almost over?
.....to that I would only add the related and implied point that some riders respond far better to doping than others...and so leaps such as that of Froome's might demonstrate the proportion of their success which might be assumed to be to due to PED use....The argument is that talent shows early. If your talent shows early, you might dope, but maybe you do have talent nonetheless. If your talent doesn't show early, you don't have it.
The point is to make a list of superdopers but not include armstrong thus enshrining Contador in the list of holy doper-but-it-doesnt-count legendsNot totally sure I follow this discussion. Is the discussion about why one group of near certain dopers (Hinault, Contador, etc.) had a more consistent ramp than another near certain doper, Froome?
Is the argument that, unlike Hinault, Contador, etc., who were doping the entire time they were in the pro peloton, and likely before, Froome showed much restraint and only started doping late in the game when it was clear his dream was almost over?
No, the game here is to throw enough shade around Froome’s doping that future readers might harbor some notion that he might have been clean. The hope appears to be that this can be accomplished by not responding to any direct comment about his positive test and acting like his transformation was within the bounds of natural athletic progression. The other riders are just props in the service of the overarching goal.Not totally sure I follow this discussion. Is the discussion about why one group of near certain dopers (Hinault, Contador, etc.) had a more consistent ramp than another near certain doper, Froome?
Is the argument that, unlike Hinault, Contador, etc., who were doping the entire time they were in the pro peloton, and likely before, Froome showed much restraint and only started doping late in the game when it was clear his dream was almost over?
So now we're assigning talent levels based on early results, holding that constant, treating doping as the variable, adding the assumption that all are doping to some level, and concluding that Froome's doping must have been more comprehensive, programmatically superior, or more compatible with his natural response, or some combination of the three?The argument is that talent shows early. If your talent shows early, you might dope, but maybe you do have talent nonetheless. If your talent doesn't show early, you don't have it.
I'm all about this game.The point is to make a list of superdopers but not include armstrong thus enshrining Contador in the list of holy doper-but-it-doesnt-count legends
Not totally sure I follow this discussion. Is the discussion about why one group of near certain dopers (Hinault, Contador, etc.) had a more consistent ramp than another near certain doper, Froome?
Is the argument that, unlike Hinault, Contador, etc., who were doping the entire time they were in the pro peloton, and likely before, Froome showed much restraint and only started doping late in the game when it was clear his dream was almost over?
That's a lie, of course. Like most of what you do here, btw, it's either lying or amuse everyone by pretending you know something about the sport and even teaching it.Nearly 1400 pages on this, so maybe this has been conclusively befoe.
In 2011 Chris Froome was outsider. He was earning 80k a year, not that much, few contacts in the sport. But then he apparently took something that catapulted him, according to the Clinic, from an autobus dweller into a contender overnight. Tour of Poland etc.
Now let's say it was all drugs, Froome has extended that form for at least 8 years. He is rich. There's been no actual doping problems
So the question is 'Why is he only one?'. Surely others would try their hand
Not totally sure I follow this discussion. Is the discussion about why one group of near certain dopers (Hinault, Contador, etc.) had a more consistent ramp than another near certain doper, Froome?
Is the argument that, unlike Hinault, Contador, etc., who were doping the entire time they were in the pro peloton, and likely before, Froome showed much restraint and only started doping late in the game when it was clear his dream was almost over?
Good point. Most riders also had to deal with the squad/sponsor politics to get any freedom within a team for most races; let alone GT stage or GC protection. Froome's own experience on Sky echoes that.Also worth noting that promising riders were kept out of GT's to mature back then. If Hinault and Lemond were riding today, their GT debuts would have come a couple of years earlier.
No, try again.So now we're assigning talent levels based on early results, holding that constant, treating doping as the variable, adding the assumption that all are doping to some level, and concluding that Froome's doping must have been more comprehensive, programmatically superior, or more compatible with his natural response, or some combination of the three?
If I'm going to waste time, I like to know the methodology behind it.
Nearly 1400 pages on this, so maybe this has been conclusively befoe.
In 2011 Chris Froome was outsider. He was earning 80k a year, not that much, few contacts in the sport. But then he apparently took something that catapulted him, according to the Clinic, from an autobus dweller into a contender overnight. Tour of Poland etc.
Now let's say it was all drugs, Froome has extended that form for at least 8 years. He is rich. There's been no actual doping problems
So the question is 'Why is he only one?'. Surely others would try their hand
This certainly holds true for riders from the US or Europe, who are racing on the circuit from a young age and have experienced coaches and training plans in place for them.The argument is that talent shows early. If your talent shows early, you might dope, but maybe you do have talent nonetheless. If your talent doesn't show early, you don't have it.
4 years in Europe not enough?...with an (alleged) physiological test (the fax) telling him that if he shed some weight he would be one of the fastest cyclists of all time....he just couldn't be ars*d to lose it....but managed it in three weeks in '11This certainly holds true for riders from the US or Europe, who are racing on the circuit from a young age and have experienced coaches and training plans in place for them.
But Froome was racing with substandard equipment and coaching until he was in his 20s. The conditions weren't really there for him to come close to fulfiling his potential. Which is why Brailsford was always so keen to point out that he was a 'diamond in the rough'. It was the ideal explanation, because it is plausible.
Of course, it's not likely, but it is at least a possibility with Froome. There are circumstances where talent wouldn't show early.
This certainly holds true for riders from the US or Europe, who are racing on the circuit from a young age and have experienced coaches and training plans in place for them.
But Froome was racing with substandard equipment and coaching until he was in his 20s.
The conditions weren't really there for him to come close to fulfiling his potential. Which is why Brailsford was always so keen to point out that he was a 'diamond in the rough'. It was the ideal explanation, because it is plausible.
Of course, it's not likely, but it is at least a possibility with Froome. There are circumstances where talent wouldn't show early.
Don't try and wind me up.Is it too late to mention Froome had bilharzia?
Turns out he'd had it all his life, which is why he had never shown any promise of being the greatest GT rider in decades.
Fortunately they realised, just in time, and cured it. Or he would have likely been lost to professional cycling forever.
A lot of the time, though, these debates have been had ad nauseaum for several years, and if they haven't been debunked for a while, then points will be raised once more in an attempt to re-postulate the same hypothesis that was rejected before, in order to implant it in the memory of a new readership.This certainly holds true for riders from the US or Europe, who are racing on the circuit from a young age and have experienced coaches and training plans in place for them.
But Froome was racing with substandard equipment and coaching until he was in his 20s. The conditions weren't really there for him to come close to fulfiling his potential. Which is why Brailsford was always so keen to point out that he was a 'diamond in the rough'. It was the ideal explanation, because it is plausible.
Of course, it's not likely, but it is at least a possibility with Froome. There are circumstances where talent wouldn't show early.