Dear Wiggo said:
			
		
	
	
		
		
			Probably not, and it's a moot question regardless. I am sorry you hate Chris Froome but in this instance at least, his grievance was warranted, but he didn't really air it until much later.
		
		
	 
It's not really a moot point.
Generally the guy coming second is not from the same team as the guy coming first. Thus the guy coming first distributes his money down the chain.
Froome didn't get his share from Wiggins. Which on the surface sounds naughty. However Froome got prize money for finishing second. 
Meaning did Wiggins take his prize pool & share down the line divided by 7 and not 8. Or did Wiggins pocket the 8th portion?
Knowing what we know now it certainly appears that Froome was undermining Wiggins who was the designated leader not just by team selection but by his result for that year. 
To be honest Brailsford really should have sorted it out between the both of them and the fact that Froome (Cound) seduced & leaked the story to Walsh to be included in his book was very poor. But indicative of the manner in which Froome deals with such matters.