SeriousSam said:
Is there any evidence silent bans are a real thing? They don't make a lot of sense given the incentives of everyone involved.
it's a good question, but yes, there is evidence not just from tennis.
Woods (golf), Nadal (tennis), are both rumored by colleagues to have had silent bans. Imo, coming from colleagues, that's likely to be true.
But I think there are other more concrete cases as well. (perhaps andynonymous or someone else can help me out here)
Why wouldn't it make sense? You mean why wouldn't the tennis body cover it up completely and ignore the positive all together?
Well, I don't think it's that easy to ignore a positive if the testing was done by a WADA lab. Sure, positives are swept under the carpet every now and again with the help of corrupt antidoping officers, but still it's not a straightforward procedure, me thinks, and one that, if it comes to light, would be a scandal for the ITF. A silent ban seems an easier solution. And no scandal for the ITF, even if it comes out.
The important thing to bear in mind here is that (if i'm not mistaken) WADA implicitly allows for silent bans. The WADA code gives the sports bodies the freedom to disclose the positive the way they deem proper. So that could mean without publicly disclosing the name of the athlete.
(I don't think it's always been like this, but i'm quite sure it's like this at present)
Thus, a silent ban is a win-win for any sports body: no need to bribe antidoping officials, and no bad publicity either.
Perhaps a good question is why hasn't UCI made more use of silent bans?